Here are World Bank figures for Gross National Income per capita from 2006-2009, looking at the richest countries in the world. I have circled those countries which have experienced declines in GNI at any point over the four-year period:And here is the same thing for the very poorest countries:
65% of the richer countries experienced declines while only 10% of the poorer countries experienced decline.
I struggle to understand these figures. Does this mean that the poorest countries have economic advantages over the rich? Did their poverty mean that they avoided the speculative bubbles that troubled the rich states? Or is their growth really so humble that it makes little difference to their poverty? Any thoughts? I'd love to know why the poorest countries in the world seem to have experienced economic growth while the rich have run aground.